I have read that "According to a 2000 report by the National Institutes of Health, correct and consistent use of latex condoms reduces the risk of HIV/AIDS transmission by approximately 85% relative to risk when unprotected."
No this is false, condoms are 98-99.9% percent effective. I do remember a LONG TIME ago discussing this study with people,
and they said that there were "misinterpretations" with this study. If you really want percentage reassuarance. There was a study done in Europe over two years, in this study they took serodiscordant couples (one negative partner and
one hiv positive partner ) and asked some of them to wear condoms all the time and some to wear condoms some of the time.
The cohort or group that wore condoms all the time had a 100% success rate. The other half (that wore condoms SOME of the
time had 2 or 3 infections out of something like 125 (ish) but MIND YOU THEY WERE NOT PRACTICING safer sex). Another study
group that wore condoms showed that out of 120 (ish) people only 3 over two years had rips in the condom to catch infection
but it was believe that they may have engadged in some other risks but even accounting for that the safety factor was about
98 %. SO no no no wearing a condom is about 98-100% safe.
Does this imply that vaginal fluids can pass (to a man), or semen can pass into the vagina, or both? Wouldn't a man's penis need to have a cut so that --given a contact with infected vaginal fluids-- there would be a possibility of infection?
The points of entry are either mucosal membranes of the human body (inside of mouth/ inner lining of urethra of penis or inner lining of vagina) OR a point that has a cut and at that very recently if the cut is clotted over very high chances noting penetrated.
Hope this helps.