I can see that a number of escorts allow DFK, DATY and/or .
Fine by me, but I don`t understand why, in these cases, the use of a condom is mandatory.
Why bother about the condom then?
From a STD point of view, I can`t understand why DFK/DATY/ would be seen as low risk and intercourse without condom seen as high risk.
Somewhere it doesn`t add up.
I have read a number of medical web sites on the subject and I believe I understand the different STD.
I just don`t understand the the use of a condom when DFK, DATY and is allowed on the basis of safety.
Is this market pressure versus STD`s statistics?
Could someone enlighten me about this?